FORUM, Forum Discussion, Forum Gratuit, Nom de domaine, Nom de domaine gratuit, Redirection gratuite,

Forum Physiks Causali  Administrators :saucer, Iseason, us2u
Forum Physiks Causali
Not logged | Login
Online:There are 5 online. Click here to see more
Register Register | Profile Profile | Private messages Private messages | Search Search | Online Online | Help Help | Create a free blog

forum Forum index forumMathematics basic topics forumTopic: Basic series

Author : Topic: Topic: Basic series  Bottom
 saucer
 admin
 Posts : 673
 A Good Tautology is Hard to Find!
 saucer
  Posted 06/01/2007 00:21:02 AM
Send a private message to saucer
-





http://tutorial.math.lamar.edu/AllBrowsers/2414/Series_Basics.asp


citing.

...a sequence is a list of numbers while a series is a single number, provided it makes sense to even compute the series.  Students will often confuse the two and try to use facts pertaining to one on the other.  However, since they are different beasts this just won’t work.  There will be problems where we are using both sequences and series, but we’ll always have to remember that they are different.






-

 ferme
 Posts : 85
  Posted 12/03/2007 10:07:19 PM
Send a private message to ferme

 zee
 Posts : 115
  Posted 17/04/2007 11:45:25 AM
Send a private message to zee

 360pan gold
 Posts : 14
 360pan gold
  Posted 22/05/2007 04:41:15 PM
Send a private message to 360pan gold
series

http://thesaurus.maths.org/mmkb/entry.html?action=entryById&id=1045

Lagrange inversion formula

From: Robin Chapman <rjc@maths.ex.ac.uk>
Subject: Re: Power Series With Binomials
Date: Tue, 07 Sep 1999 09:14:21 GMT
Newsgroups: sci.math
Keywords: Application of Lagrange inversion formula

In article <erh4lvu9oix3@forum.swarthmore.edu>,
 qqquet@hotbot.com (Leroy Quet) wrote:
> I know that sum_{m=0}^infinity[binomial(2m,m)x^m]=
> 1/sqrt(1-4x).
> But,in general, what is sum_{m=0}^infinity[binomial(rm,m)x^m]?
> (r is a positive integer.)

Consider the equation x = f(x) - f(x)^r. By the Lagrange inversion
formula this has a unique power series solution f(x) with f(0) = 0
and this is

f(x) = sum_{k=0}^infinity binomial(rk,k) x^{1+k(r-1)}/[1+k(r-1)].

Hence f'(x) = sum_{k=0}^infinity binomial(rk,k) x^{k(r-1)}.

Now f'(x)[1 - rf(x)^{r-1}] = 1 so f'(x) = 1/[1 - rf(x)^{r-1}].
Should we think the effort worthwhile we could get a degree
r equation for f' from that for f.


360  

--Last edited by 360pan gold on 2007-05-22 16:44:32 --


forum Forum index forumMathematics basic topics forumTopic: Basic series
top
Go to :
  Add a quick reply

Add a quick reply